Yes, I am 18 years late. I have read quite a lot about
Pomeranz’s “Great Divergence”, both laudatory and dismissive reviews, papers
that continued in his footsteps and others that did not, but I have not read
the original book. So I decided to correct the omission at the end of this Summer.
It is a great book. And it is not surprising that it became
famous. It presents what was then (year 2000) a largely new view on the causes
of the Great Divergence, proves methodically, one by one, insufficiency of all other
plausible explanations, and presents a logically taut and cogent case for its
own hypothesis.
That hypothesis is by now so well known that I will just
sketch it here in the briefest terms possible. Pomeranz argues that around
1750-1800 Western Europe, China and to a lesser extent India were at the same
or similar levels of development in all relevant respects that could have led
to the Industrial Revolution (technology, protection of property rights, development
of markets, institutions in general, demography and family formation). If anything,
China was ahead of Western Europe in being much more of a competitive Smithian market economy: land was easier to
sell than in Europe (p. 73), labor market was well-integrated with greater
migration of labor (pp. 84-4, 90), state interfered less with merchants and granted them fewer privileges
(p. 170), there were only two state
monopolies (p. 196).
There is thus no apparent reason why only Western Europe
would develop further while the others
stagnated or declined. The real reason was, Pomeranz argues, in the role played
by the Americas that (i) provided the silver with which Europe could satisfy insatiable
Chinese demand (as China was undergoing the process of remonetization) and thus
provide wherewithal to pay imported Asian luxuries, and (ii) more importantly, grow
food and cotton for which Europe had no sufficient land or climate. Americas thus helped Europe remove the Malthusian
trap, or more accurately, helped it avoid the cul-de-sac development into which
China and India fell due to the lack of land on which to grow food for their
increasing populations. In addition, England was helped by having access to
relatively cheap energy (coal)—a fact which interestingly does not receive in
the main text of the book the attention that later reviewers gave it.
The origins of the Great Divergence are thus not endogenous
to Europe: they cannot be found in some features unique to Europe—be it culture
or institutions, or the division of the continent in many warring states or
more advanced technology—but are exogenous. Without the Americas, there would not
have been (modern) Europe, nor the Industrial Revolution.
The book is not exactly fun to read. The problem does not lie
in bad writing or misorganization. In fact, the writing is excellent and very
clear. The problem lies in the fact that Pomeranz needed first to dispose of
all alterative interpretations for the European take-off, that is to show that
none of them can prove Europe’s “difference” from China decisively, and thus to
convince us of “surprising similarities” between Western Europe and most of
China around 1700-1750. But to do so Pomeranz had to rely on a multitude of very partial
and fragmentary observations or bits of data (here, a piece of evidence about
the cost of land in a town in China around 1770, there, a guessestimate of
Chinese cotton production around 1720 based on information about the “usual”
yields in somebody’s diary). None of that
makes for an exciting reading and had we better and more consistent data, both
for Western Europe and China, most of this discussion could be safely relegated
to annexes. But under that scenario, most of Pomeranz’s book would be in annexes.
This makes of course for a very tedious reading livened up, however, from time
to time, by some excellent observations or unusual facts.
It is only when we come (in the third part of the book) to
Pomeranz’s own hypothesis that the text picks up pace and becomes more
engaging. Pomeranz‘s Introduction that runs to some 20 pages is also commendably
lucid. I read it after having read the book (as I normally do, since I think
that we can understand general line of an argument much better after having
read the nitty-gritty) and for those who are do not agree with me and are interested
in the main argument only, the Introduction may suffice.
Let me now mention two points I found interesting…and puzzling:
armed trade and sources used. “Armed trade”, that is, trade carried in the
shadows of the threat, or actual use,
of force or even pure piracy was the European way to prevail in Asian trade (p.
182). State-linked (or coercion-intensive; both terms are Pomeranz’s) European capitalism
was not only key for the conquest of the Americas but projected European power
across the world, including in Asia. Pomeranz thus argues that whenever European
refrained from the use of force, they failed to squeeze out Chinese merchants
from Southeast Asia; only when they resorted to armed trade, did they take
control. While European merchants worked with the state, or were themselves
(like East India Company or the Dutch VOC)
quasi states, the Qing China was uninterested in protecting its overseas traders,
failing even to react to their massacres in Batavia and Manila (pp. 202-3).
But the question one can ask is, why was the trade war fought
on what may be thought to be Chinese home-turf? Were there some reasons that uniquely
enabled Europeans to project their power and to trade in Asia, and that prevented
the Chinese to do likewise in the Atlantic or the Mediterranean? Was the
willingness to use force the only reason? Thus while I find plausible or even
convincing that the Dutch, Portuguese, Spanish or English could not outsell the
Chinese in Indonesia or the Philippines except when ready to use force, I still
do not understand what led Europeans to get there in the first place and
prevented Chinese to send similar ships to the Atlantic. Was that something “endogenous”
to Europe?
Second. It is striking how few contemporary Chinese sources
we have (or are quoted in the book), compared to contemporary European sources,
or even European travel writers in China (nothing similar exists in China: no
Chinese travelers in Europe are cited). I suppose that Pomeranz who is a China
scholar knew most of the then-extent sources. Further, we surely have more
sources today than almost twenty years ago. There is an enormous archival research
work going on in China. But the disproportion is, it seems, still large. If we
take the period 1500-1700, there are thousands of documents, notes, memoranda,
books and treatises in Western Europe that deal with economic matters. It does
not seem that anything similar existed in China. And although researchers are
finding new data in Chinese household stashes and archives, and that particular
paucity of numbers may be alleviated, the paucity of scholarly discussion of economic
matters is unlikely to be remedied because if such texts existed in China, we
would have known of them by now. So the question is, if scholars or bureaucrats
in China were uninterested in matters
economic, and scholars and bureaucrats in (Western) Europe were, does not that too show that there were some “endogenous”
differences?
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