This Sunday,
May 29 marks the anniversary of the Fall of Constantinople in 1453. I have been
recently reading (and in some cases, rereading) books on the last period of
Constantinople, after the reprieve of 1402, brought about by the Ottoman defeat
by Tamerlane, and how and why this period was not better used. But thinking of Roman
Empire and of what is called (somewhat inaccurately) Eastern Roman Empire, led
me to two, I hope interesting, observations.
First, why
the Industrial Revolution did not happen in Eastern Roman Empire? Asking this question
is going back to the famous query posed
by Michael Rostovtzeff in the 1930s: “Why was there a detour of some ten
centuries; why did not seemingly modern-looking market institutions of Rome
produce at least a Lombardy-like economic development, not in the 14th
but in the 4th century?” There are many answers to that question. From
those who emphasize external factors like the “barbarians at the gate” to those
who, like Rostovtzeff himself, believe that the weakening and the break-down of
the Empire came because of its inability to incorporate lower classes and because
of the “dead hand” of a rising military bureaucracy; to those like Marx and Aldo Schiavone and Bob Allen
who believe that the culprit was slavery: cheap labor that provided no incentive for the
use of labor-saving machines that technically could have been developed. Finally, there are those who in the debate
between the “modernists” and “primitivisms” thought, like Moses Finley and Karl
Polanyi, that Roman institutions did not contain at all the seeds that could have
led to capitalist development.
Where does
Eastern Roman Empire come into that discussion? It seems to me that the most
appropriate answer to Rostovtzeff’s question would be to look to the “country”
about which he posed the question: the country that was the continuation of the
Roman Empire, nay that was the Roman Empire
itself (Constantinople become the capital in 330 AD, some 80 years before the first
sack of Rome) and that lasted for another 800 to 900 years with no interruption.
(That is, if we want to date the end of the Roman Empire in 1204 when Byzantium
was conquered by the Crusaders).
Wasn’t there
enough time to find out if ancient institutions could become capitalistic?
Eight or nine centuries seems plenty. Moreover, what, culturally and
institutionally, better place to develop than the Eastern Empire: direct
continuator of the larger Roman whole with an educated elite, same institutions,
stable currency (solidus, “the dollar of the middle ages”), reasonable
protection of property rights, people knowledgeable of Greek and Latin and thus
able to read everything from Herodotus to Columella’s agricultural treatises without
the intermediation of translation, with Roman laws codified and simplified by
Justinian. Why did not there develop “bourgeois virtue”, “inclusive
institutions”, Landes’ “culture”? Or does
it all have to do with “serendipity” of having coal and expensive labor in one place? Yet despite
all of these advantages, no one reading the history of the Eastern Roman Empire
would come thinking that there was any chance of it developing in the capitalistic
direction. It was as feudalistic as they come.
I do not
know why market economy with wage labor failed to develop there and can only speculate
that it might have been because of a militarized bureaucracy, land magnates
(and thus high inequality), obsession with Christian theology which sucked the
best minds into sterile disputes (it would be nice to have an anti-Christian
like Gibbon tell us why the Eastern Empire could not become a capitalistic
power!), its frequent wars with Arabs, Persians, Russians, Normans, Bulgars,
Pechinegs, Avars, Ottomans… Any other candidates?
There is
plenty of recent scholarly work on why China failed to become capitalist and start
the Industrial Revolution (for an excellent discussion see
Peer Vries “Escaping poverty”, and especially the chapter entitled “Why it
does not make sense to call Qing China capitalist…”), but it seems to me that equally
revealing and rewarding would be to study why the Eastern Roman Empire, seemingly full of all the
necessary prerequisites, failed to do so. The ingredients were present in both
China and Eastern Rome, but in neither case did development occur: why?
The second
observation has to do with trade and war. The reading of Eastern Mediterranean
history is extremely instructive for a
way in which we should think of trade. A benevolent approach, starting with
Ricardo, always regarded trade as an activity
freely undertaken by two parties with no extra-economic compulsion. No reader
of history of the Eastern Roman Empire can share that view. Trade and military underpinning
of it went hand-in-hand. This is at its most obvious not in large empires which
anyway had to have armies but in trading city-states like Venice and Genoa. If you
believe that trade is all about peace there would be no reason why these
city-states had to maintain large naval fleets, fight battles, conquer islands,
negotiate, under military threat, special rights to tariff-free imports and
exports. Trade, debt and the army always moved together. No tourist to any
Greek island today will fail to observe large Venetian and Genoan fortresses that could not have been
built without money and labor but also without a naval presence that allowed
the control or conquest of the islands in the first place.
When the Fourth
crusade started, the first city to have been sacked by the Crusaders was a Christian
port-city of Zara (today’s Zadar in Croatia), a rival to Venice. The doge paid
the Crusaders to start their path of destruction with a city populated by their
co-religionaries. The association between trade and war which continued throughout
the rest of history, and certainly throughout the 19th century, helps
us to have a much more clear-eyed view about colonialism too. As said by a Dutch Proconsul in Batavia in a
letter written to the Directors of the Dutch East India Company (that I cite in
my recent book),
Your Honors should know by experience that trade in Asia must
be driven and maintained under the protection of Your Honors’ own weapons, and
that the weapons must be paid for by the
profits from the trade, so that we cannot carry on trade without war nor war
without trade.
Trade followed
the flag in Africa and Asia (Leif
Wenar and I wrote an article on that criticizing Rawls’ rather quick acceptance
of the “doux commerce” view of trade). “The unequal treaties” with China would be unimaginable
without European military superiority and the threat it implied; the Opium War—another
example of the close association between the two—was won by arms. “Free trade” came to India and Africa “out of
the barrel of a gun”.
Trade,
helped by arms, was often at the origin of the fortunes which grew further by monopolistic
or monopsonistic practices, lending or
usury, or in some cases through entrepreneurship. The origin of fortunes was thus
often extra-economic. But that need for military power, if one wishes to trade
and be rich, is best seen on the example of trading city-states that, in a
world without coercion and ruled by the benevolent comparative advantage, would
not require fleets, cannons and mercenaries.
History is
useful---even for economists.
PS. The
electoral/referendum season is upon us, so tempers flare, and I should explain
more clearly my own thinking on trade and war. When Leif Wenar and I argued
that trade and war are linked, we took a position against a somewhat naïve and
mechanistic view (shared by Rawls) that liberal peoples who trade are
necessarily peaceful. Indeed, military power was often used to extract
advantages in trade or simply to pillage weaker nations. But that does not
imply that military power is always used for that purpose. Sometimes, as in the
US control of today’s shipping routes in the Pacific or Pompey’s campaign
against the Cilician pirates, the military underpinning is needed to make trade
and development possible. There, arms play
a role similar to domestic monopoly of violence which guarantees property rights and human rights more generally.
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